ailig_ab wrote:
If someone were to ask another "Cad is ainm duit", one would reply "___ is ainm dom".
However reading GnaG, it becomes clear the above response "___ is ainm dom" is an emphasised form of the copula.
Apparently, one cannot say "Is ainm dom Seán", its unemphasised counterpart.
My question is why could I not say "Is ainm dom Ailig_ab"?
Also how would would both be translated?
1) Is ainm dom Ailig_ab = Ailig is a name to me/a name to me is Ailig
2) Ailig is ainm dom = ?
I am not sure if I am right, but I think of those sentences this way: since
cad is ainm duit? means literally ‘what-is-it that-is your name?’ (
cad means ‘what is it’ and is a copula form by itself) and
is here is the direct relative form, ‘that is’, I interpret the answers like ‘Seán is ainm dom’ as a shorthand to something along the lines of
*is é is Seán an rud is ainm dom – ‘Seán is the thing that is my name’ (edit after Labhrás’ reply: or rather ‘the thing that is my name is Seán’).
Not sure if it’s possible to rephrase it without the relative copula (the
is in the middle of the sentence), ’cause I think the predicate (edit after Labhrás’ reply: or rather the subject, as the predicate is
Seán, the name itself) is always ‘[the thing] that is my name’, and not just ‘my name’.
ailig_ab wrote:
One other very interesting point to bring up is in Mícháel Ó'Siadhail's "Modern Irish", his chapter "Overview of Syntax of Copula" on pg 233, he provides one sentence as an example to describe idiomatic use of the copula with "do"
"Fear darb ainm dó Máirtín" = a man whose name is Martin
I don't really understand the structure of this sentence, although GnaG gives its as "The man to-whom-is name Seán."
To quote a passage from "Modern Irish" on pg 224 regarding the sentence in question, "with a curious doubling of the preposition do "to" in darb "to whom is" and dó "to him". My question here is why is there dó preceding the name "Máirtín"? Does it literally translate as "to him" or could it have anything to do with the resumptive pronoun seeing as this is an indirect relative clause.
Interesting. I’d phrase it
fear gurb ainm dó Máirtín (or
fear arb ainm dó…) –
not sure if any native would say that though, and it seems to be
easily googlable. But repeated prepositions in general also happen elsewhere. I think I’ve seen in Peadar Ua Laoghaire’s works things like
an áit ina bhfuil sé ann ‘the place where he was’, lit. ‘the place in-which he was there’ (instead of
an áit ina bhfuil sé or
an áit go bhfuil sé ann), but I can’t find an example right now.
I guess the
dó, di, dom, etc. part just became a part of a set phrase of stating the name, and you cannot leave it even if you already put
do before the relative copula (ie.
dar(b)).
On a side note, since
áit is feminine, it always puzzled me why I always see
an áit go bhfuil sé ann and not, as I’d expect,
*an áit go bhfuil sé inti, but I guess this
ann got generalized to mean generally ‘there’ and not really ‘in him, in it’ in such sentences.
ailig_ab wrote:
Lastly, could the sentence be phrased in the following way: "Is fear darb ainm dó Máirtín"
Is it possible the copula could have been omitted? I find this explanation easier to understand.
What would
is refer here to, what would be the predicate and what would be the subject?
fear darb ainm dó Máirtín is a full single noun phrase meaning ‘the man whose name is Máirtín’, you can’t put copula before a single noun phrase.
If you mean ‘
He is the man whose name is Mairtín’, that would be:
is é (an) fear (d)arb ainm dó Máirtín éor
is é (an) fear é (d)arb ainm dó Máirtín.