I wrote a long piece (a review of Gerald O'Nolan's works) in
Éigse, which included a long section on his views on the copula. You can read it at
https://corkirish.files.wordpress.com/2014/09/nolan_book_review13.pdfNolan argued that the subpredicate pronoun was inserted to stop the copula from standing next to
the subject. For this reason,
ea is inserted in
ainmhí is ea capall and
é is inserted in
’Sé is mian leis an Eaglais fearg Dé do mhaolú. The fundamental rule is that the copula cannot stand next to the subject of the copula.
However, there is a quirk owing to syntactical contamination or confusion between different types of sentences, that a subpredicate has crept in in sentences like
is é an saol so an t-earrach, where
an saol is the predicate, and yet has a subpredicate pronoun.
Nolan's presentation is at variance with
Graiméar Gaeilge, but fits the evidence better, as there are sentences where a definite noun comes straight after the copula (in sentences like
is é an Tiarna is Dia againn, where
Dia is definite), and so
Graiméar Gaeilge's claim that a definite noun cannot stand after the copula is false.
V = verb (the copula)
S = subject
P = predicate
p -= subpredicate
The general form is VPS - is ainmhí capall (a horse is an animal)
ainmhí is ea capall - this is PVpS, with the p inserted to stop the V coming directly before the S.
’sé is mian leis an Eaglais fearg Dé do mhaolú - this is VpSP. The predicate is put at the end because of the complexity of the sentence. The S is "(rud) is mian leis an Eaglais" and the P is "fearg Dé do mhaolú".
is é an saol so an t-earrach - Nolan argued that in older Irish the subpredicate was not present in such sentences, and has crept in by analogy with VpSP sentences. This sentence is VpPS.
is é an Tiarna is Dia againn - the "is Dia againn" bit is VP, although it is in a relative clause governed by the preceding clause. No p is required because
Dia is not the subject, even though it is a definite noun.
is bean an múinteóir: this is VPS. As
bean is not the subject, no subpredicate is required. There is even less reason to insert one before the subject, which isn't even next to the copula.
Note: Nolan's presentation fits the evidence better than other presentations. However, I am not so clear that his statement about the historical origin of the subpredicate in VpPS sentences is right. To use technical terms, he may have it right synchronically, but may not have researched the diachronic origin as deeply as he claimed?