I’m fairly sure the distinction between active/passive meaning is a much much later unetymological orthographical convention. I’m pretty sure there was no such distinction in classical language, and nothing(?) like that in OIr. or MIr.
The question really is whether the later progressive forms /əm, əd/ (and also Scottish
gam, gad, Ulster
(ag) mo, (ag) do, (ag) ár /(ə) mə, (ə) də, (əɡ) æːr/, Connacht /ɡə mə, ɡə də/, Manx
dy my, dy dty /də mə, də də/ –
German GnaG gives a nice overview) come from
ag or
do. IMO it’s clear that Ulster and Scottish ones come from
ag, Connacht could be either (since
do and
go merged, hence both
ag mo and
do mo would end up with /ɡ/) and Manx seems to show
do here (in later Manx
gy changed to
dy – but apparently the
dy my forms are attested in older texts that generally keep clear distinction between
gy and
dy).
Ó Nualláin’s
Studies in Modern Irish vol. 4 on prose of Keating has:
Studies in Modern Irish, vol. 4, pp. 99–100 wrote:
It is a useful distinction which, in present-day Irish, reserves ag for the Verbal Noun in an active and do in a passive, sense. Keating knows no such distinction; in fact, he uses them sometimes in exactly the opposite way:—
(…)
Frequently do denotes purpose:—
390.—ní ḋearna aċt scríoḃaḋ ċuca da iarraiḋ orṫa a ndíċeall do ḋéanaṁ dóiḃ féin, = he merely wrote to them to request them to do the best they could for themselves.
390.—Cuirid Róṁánaiġ léigion do ṡluaġ armṫa da ḃfurtaċt, = the Romans sent an armed legion to relieve them.
But, ag is also used to denote purpose:—
(…)
I believe in Old Irish generally
oc (later
ag) was used for the progressive sense (though in OIr. times it was far from mandatory, as McCone puts it in
The Early Irish Verb, p. 22:
The optional status of the progressive in Old Irish may be compared with the ‘used to’ habitual of Modern English, which is likewise optional (e.g. ‘he used to go home every evening’ or ‘he went home every evening’). These rather marginal Old Irish periphrastic progressives will be ignored hereafter.) –
do, I think, was restricted to the purpose
‘to do’ meaning.
But then I’ve read that those prepositions generally got mixed before verbal nouns (later constructions like
an teach atáim do thógáil, a thógáil show this, though
an taigh a tha mi a’ (=ag) togail in Sc. Gaelic – but then introduction to
Stories from Keating’s History of Ireland claims it’s a “a solecism unknown to the speech” that in Sc. Gaelic is based on analogy with non-relative construction, see also
this post – I’m somewhat suspsicious about this claim too).
In
this response to my speculations Cionnfhaolach gave some examples of Old Irish using
do in the purpose meaning too (‘to go to talk to them’, ‘has come to convert you, to be converting you’). An Lon Dubh wrote in that thread there is no agreement on the issue and generally it seems it came from confusion between
ag and
do in the classical times.
So my own opinion – but really just based on random discussions on the Internet, and a few examples of older usage – because nobody seems to have dealt with it in details – is that some dialectal forms continue
ag and some possibly
do (and I
think that Manx gives strongest evidence for that), perhaps without a way to find a definite answer. But because of that I’d really like to know what evidence do people claiming it’s definitely
do have.