Am I right in thinking that she's got this wrong or not ? I seem to remember that Lugaidh (Loic Cheval) insists that this word ends without a glide .i. le - and not - lye - and similarly for the word - sáile ?
I've checked on Teanglann where for - sáile - the Cúige Uladh pronunciation does seem to have a slight glide after the 'l', but certainly not for - 'bhaile - in any of the three dialects and Darach Ó Catháin doesn't seem to pronounce it the way that she does either.

How to say "Óró, 'sé do bheatha 'bhaile," a famous song in Irish Gaelic - Bitesize Irish
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TAaV55UaO48
Óró sé do bheatha 'bhaile - vaple21
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3AFRCWg_kOc

http://www.teanglann.ie/ga/fuaim/ - sáile
http://www.teanglann.ie/ga/fuaim/abhaile

It’s the Irish slender single /l´/ which is equivalent to the "normal" /l/ in many other languages, e.g. English, German or French.
It’s an apical alveolar approximant.
There’s really no need to "slenderize" it more. And of course no glide is necessary next to e, i.

It's pronounced A-wall-ya

yes but only by learners and non-native speakers

Native speakers pronounce a-wah-leh (Donegal & Connachta) or a-vah-leh (Munster).

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